2-77 MQF Fire Support Team (FIST) Certification Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the numerical factor used to convert degrees to mils?
• True or False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
• Which submunition variant has 88 submunitions?
• Which of these is not a NSFS brevity term?
• Mortar registration ends after a certain bracket has been split and the last round within a specified distance of the target. How many rounds over and short are required?
• During the impact portion of a registration you spot a round that impacts on the registration point. What range spotting would that be?
• Which term corresponds to an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement?
• What field artillery team is organic to each maneuver battalion and selected units to plan and coordinate all available company supporting fires?
• What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as 'At My Command' or 'By Round, At My Command'?
• Which brevity term means an object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor?
• How is a registration initiated?
• During an illumination mission, if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?
• In mortar registration, range corrections are made to the nearest distance of what?
• Which option lists the components of the engagement method exactly as described?
• During O - Observation in SLOCTOP, ensure all team members are proficient in friendly or adversary forces recognition.
• When is a gun-target line considered hot?
• What are the five parts of a terrain sketch?
• When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, how is the sheaf adjusted?
• The _____ is a specialized, regionally focused Army element that serves as the senior Army operational commander's liaison with the air component. A _____ is co-located with the joint or combined AOC.
• A target is translated into actionable fire support by which role?
• Which offensive operation is taken to develop the situation and reestablish contact?
• A _____ is an area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited.
• Which radar zone is a weapons locating radar search area from which the commander wants to attack hostile firing systems?
• FA-PARCA is a mnemonic used to organize which aspects of fire support planning?
• What term describes a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation?
• Which item is included as one of the 12 steps of the CAS execution template?
• What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions?
• During the time portion of the precision registration, when one airburst and three graze bursts are spotted what is the HOB correction?
• What task/effect is a tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy's formation or tempo, interrupt the enemy's timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in a piecemeal fashion?
• During the time portion of the precision registration, when two airbursts and two graze bursts are spotted what is the HOB correction?
• Which statement defines when the gun-target line becomes hot?
• Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?
• What brevity term means sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?
• Which FIST employment option makes it so most platoons in maneuver companies or troops receive a forward observer?
• Deviation spottings during refinement may include how many deviation spottings?
• If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, what is the range refinement?
• A _____ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic targeting.
• What is a type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and establish or regain contact?
• What brevity term means to discontinue stated activity?
• Which FIST employment option would be at battalion level that consolidates FIST assets?
• Which term describes achieving initial effects on the target with the first firing?
• In SLOCTOP, which term describes the process of refining location coordinates to improve targeting accuracy?
• Utilizing the flash to bang method of distance determination, you observe the flash and count 14 seconds before hearing the impact, how far is the impact?
• Which adjustment technique is best for responsive fires with an experienced observer?
• What task/effect is the act of drawing the attention and forces of an enemy from the point of the principal operation; an attack, alarm, or feint that diverts attention?
• What is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time?
• What task/effect is a tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
• Which requirement ensures weapon and ammunition information?
• Which personnel use JFOs to develop and correlate targeting data, mark targets, and provide terminal guidance operations?
• Which control describes the authority to organize and employ forces, assign tasks, designate objectives, and provide necessary direction to accomplish the mission?
• Which radar zone is an area where reporting of acquisitions is prohibited and is typically placed around friendly weapon systems to prevent detection by friendly radars?
• In the third transmission of a fire mission, what additional parameter must be included along with target description and length/width?
• In command relationships, which term describes a unit that is an organic part of the organization and assigned to the operating forces?
• Which brevity term means to discontinue current activity?
• In a polar plot mission, a _____ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is located above or below the observer's location.
• Which term describes a target whose loss would significantly contribute to the success of the operation and could be a key asset or location?
• Do Army Attack Aviation or AC-130 engagements require terminal attack control?
• If an Excalibur GPS signal fails reliability in flight, the round is designed to continue to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud. Which statement is true regarding this behavior?
• What is a target that is identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting?
• When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest how many meters?
• True / False: The FDC announces SPLASH to the observer 5 seconds prior to round impact.
• What are the three deviation spottings?
• NSFS brevity term for a new target report?
• A _____ is a location in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing HQ.
• Which brevity term means oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target?
• In integrated fire planning, which element indicates fires that should not be planned?
• Which requirement deals with the formulas and methods used to compute effects?
• Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE once the _____ meter bracket is split. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is _____ meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter bracket is split.
• Which brevity term would indicate inbound aircraft with enemy activity above the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• Which action is used to determine the correction in deviation refinement?
• During the time portion of the precision registration, when three airbursts and one graze burst is spotted what is the HOB correction?
• What is the term for a specific region into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing HQ?
• Identify the radar zone that suppresses reporting of acquisitions around friendly weapon systems.
• Which method indicates the observer cannot see the target due to weather, terrain, vegetation, intensity of the conflict, or smoke?
• Which term designates a location where fires or their effects are prohibited unless coordination occurs with the establishing HQ?
• Which brevity term means no ordnance remaining?
• The 40 meter lateral spread used for mortars is oriented perpendicular to which line during registration?
• As an observer on the hill, you spot a round to the right of the observer-target line. You measure angular deviation to be 40 mils to the right. How would you record your spotting?
• Which circular error value corresponds to CAT II?
• What does HOB stand for in illumination terminology?
• Which illumination pattern is designed to provide wider coverage when one gun illumination is insufficient?
• Which support relationship provides support to the general force as a whole rather than to any single unit?
• What is line 3 of the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?
• Which radar zone is a weapons locating radar search area in enemy territory that the commander monitors to detect and report any weapon ahead of acquisitions other than those from critical friendly zones or call for fire zones?
• Which forward observer control option would you use for a more experienced and highly trained FO team, allowing them to call for fire from fire support assets available to support the operation?
• Which FIST employment option is the Consolidated FIST?
• Which statement describes part of the T-targeting process in SLOCTOP?
• If the registration point is equidistant between two sets of rounds, what is the range refinement?
• Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of how many mils?
• How many FIST employment options are described?
• Which illumination pattern would you use to illuminate an area with practically no shadows or dark spots?
• Which statement best describes the impact registration objective?
• Which term refers to a target that is identified too late to be included in deliberate targeting but is processed using dynamic targeting when located?
• What type of control requires control of individual attacks and the JTAC/FAC(A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack?
• What method would an observer utilize if they wished to tell the FDC the total time to engage a target?
• In the time portion, at what height above the registration point are the rounds fired?
• In military radar terminology, which zone would you use to prevent acquisition information from being reported about friendly weapons?
• When planning an FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for an FPF fired with 8 guns of 155mm howitzers?
• What comes immediately after the Attack step in the CAS execution template?
• _____ is the act of designing a force, support staff, or sustainment package of specific size and composition to meet a unique task or mission.
• Which radar zone is defined as the area around friendly weapons where radar acquisitions are censored?
• Which fixed-wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
• A _____ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.
• The role of the Field Artillery is to _____ the enemy by cannon, rocket, and missile fire and to integrate and synchronize all fire support assets into operations.
• What is the name of the zone around friendly weapons that prevents radar from reporting acquisitions?
• Which control indicates the gun crew should not load rounds for the next or current engagement?
• True / False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures are those that provide safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants, facilities, or terrain.
• Which defensive operation denies enemy access for a period?
• True / False: The target description should include what the target is doing.
• During an impact registration when the 50 meter range bracket has been established, how many rounds are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that of the last range spotting?
• In impact registration, data spaced apart by what distance results in the same spottings?
• What are actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly mission?
• Which range spotting means the round could not be observed and is over or short?
• Which line is Target Location in the 9-Line CAS Brief?
• When should you send the observer-target direction change?
• Using flash-to-bang, a 20-second interval corresponds to approximately how many meters?
• Which brevity term denotes that laser designation has been acquired or the platform is LST capable?
• What measure assesses changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment tied to achieving an end state or objective?
• What are the six elements of the call for fire?
• Which term describes a target that must be engaged at a specific time according to a plan?
• How many lines are in the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?
• Which control type requires the JTAC/FAC(A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack?
• What is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation?
• In the target location portion of an Excalibur CFF, which datum must the observer specify?
• If conditions preclude briefing full BDA, what is the minimum information that should be passed?
• What term describes the planning and execution of fires so targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons?
• What task/effect describes trading space for time by slowing down the enemy's momentum and inflicting maximum damage on enemy forces without becoming decisively engaged?
• Which spotting would you use when you suspect a round but cannot confirm its location?
• Which task/effect is a tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission?
• What type of mission would you use when engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire?
• What normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum expenditure of ammunition?
• What synchronized combined arms activity under the maneuver commander is conducted to enable maneuver through an obstacle?
• Who is in charge of the FIST and also the principal fire support advisor to the commander when attached to or supporting a company or troop?
• Which unmanned aerial system is commonly equipped to carry both GBU and Hellfire ordnance?
• Which HOB spotting would be used when a round is seen in the air, not hitting the ground?
• What measure is used to assess friendly actions that is tied to task accomplishment?
• Under conditions where PER is 38 meters or larger, you may justify calling for FFE when which bracket is split?
• What brevity term would you use to begin using briefed communication procedures to counter communications jamming?
• Which vehicle employment option positions the FSO in the fire support vehicle?
• NSFS brevity term for an unfired target report?
• Which of the following is NOT a range spotting?
• Which of the following is the first line of the 9-Line CAS Brief?
• Mortar registration requires how many rounds over and short after a 100-meter bracket has been split and the last round is within 50 meters?
• Close Air Support is best described as which of the following?
• Which term describes a target whose destruction yields a large strategic benefit and is often associated with critical resources?
• What is a type of defensive operation that concentrates on denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright?
• True or False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, maneuver target line, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.
• What is the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient detail to permit effective employment of capabilities that create the required effects?
• The goal of any indirect firing unit is to achieve accurate _____ on a target.
• What is the objective of the time portion of the precision registration?
• What is line 1 of the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?
• What is a type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the enemy?
• True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two over and two short) along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters apart.
• Which control term involves coordinating or synchronizing illumination across targets?
• Which term describes a person-specific target that, if neutralized, would greatly hamper enemy capabilities?
• Which term refers to the zone around friendly weapons that blocks radar reporting of acquisitions?
• Which support relationship is a relationship requiring a force to support another specific force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force's request for assistance?
• Army _____ operations are designed to support operational and tactical plans by protecting Army aviation assets near the forward line of own troops (FLOT) or during cross-FLOT operations. _____ also includes the protection of Air Force aircraft (such as CAS aircraft) supporting the ground commander's operation.
• Which term denotes the fire support coordination measure that governs fires beyond which all fires must be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement?
• True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the observer's location.
• Which brevity term means mark or marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer?
• Which brevity term means the laser designator system is inoperative?
• If "danger close" has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what else must be passed to the attacking aircraft?
• What are the two Field Artillery core competencies provided to Army operations?
• Which option is NOT a use of illumination?
• What does the warning order consist of?
• Which zone is used to conceal radar acquisitions around friendly weapons to avoid friendly radar detection?
• Which term describes a line that delineates surface areas for coordination and deconfliction between adjacent units?
• Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of how many mils?
• What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that the LZ, HLZ, or DZ has enemy activity above the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• When planning an FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for an FPF fired with 4 tubes of 120mm mortars?
• What is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target?
• What is line 5 of the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?
• What describes a Program of Targets?
• In a maneuver platoon, who serves as the fire support representative?
• Aside from tactical considerations, the selection of targets, munitions, and techniques of fire must comply with what?
• Which option best reflects a noncomponent term for the engagement method's elements?
• Which zone is designed to mask radar observations of acquisitions around friendly weapon systems?
• A _____ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously.
• Which term denotes a coordination boundary that requires coordination with affected commanders before engagement beyond it and coordination with the establishing commander for fires short of it?
• Which distance-measurement method can be used when a laser range finder is unavailable?
• What is the term for a three-dimensional permissive fire support coordination measure with an associated airspace coordinating measure used to facilitate the integration of fires? It facilitates expeditious air-to-surface lethal attack.
• Which term best matches the concept of organizing a force with a size and composition tailored for a unique mission?
• Using flash-to-bang, a 12-second interval corresponds to approximately how many meters?
• Which control level involves detailed direction of movements within the operational area to accomplish missions?
• During an illumination mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are observing 155mm M485A2 illumination rounds and the rate of descent is 5 meters per second. What is your HOB correction?
• True / False: For air-to-surface weapons JTACs, aircrew, and commanders will refer to the standing posture column of the REDs to determine when DANGER CLOSE procedures apply.
• What is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces?
• What is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned?
• How many submunitions are in the M449 family APICMs?
• Which statement is an acceptable advisory when CAS is performed without a JTAC (second valid option)?
• Which radar zone is an area of coverage by weapons locating radar which the maneuver commander designates as critical to the protection of an asset whose loss would seriously jeopardize the mission?
• Which term describes the unintentional injury or damage to non-military targets?
• How many options are used to employ the fire support team?
• What is the initial height of burst for all 105mm illumination rounds?
• How far away should observers move away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings?
• Which of the following is NOT a method that can be used to integrate and deconflict aircraft and surface fires?
• What task/effect is a tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation?
• What is the maximum range of the M252/M252A1 81mm mortar?
• Which method would an observer use to specify the time, in minutes and seconds post hack statement, rounds impact on the target?
• True or False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location.
• Observers equipped with nothing more than a map, binoculars, and compass typically have a mean target location error of about how many meters?
• Which FIST employment option has the FIST assets remaining at the company or troop level?
• Which capability can be conducted at any place and time when friendly forces are in close proximity to enemy forces?
• How far should an auxiliary adjusting point be from the target?
• Which wind speed range is best for the production of smoke screens?
• Which task is described as disrupting the enemy by causing misalignment of their attack tempo through fires, terrain, and obstacles?
• The initial height of burst for all 120mm illumination rounds is 500.
• Which method would an observer use to specify the specific time rounds impact on the target?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect?
• Which support relationship is support which is given to the supported force as a whole and not to any particular subdivision thereof?
• Which illumination pattern would you use when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination?
• What are the eight range spottings?
• Which method of control would indicate the observer wants to repeat the last fire mission?
• A _____ is an operation to defeat an enemy attack, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for offensive or stability operations.
• If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, which method of control would the observer utilize?
• While executing a CFF you receive a Splash call for AA1020. After waiting 5 seconds for the impact you neither see nor hear the round impact. What spotting would you make?
• Which smoke type is described as creating a curtain to mask friendly forces?
• _____ is the observer's determination of the location of the burst, or the mean point of impact of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed along the observer-target line.
• A _____ is a munition that corrects for ballistic conditions using guidance and control up to the aimpoint or submunitions dispense with terminal accuracy less than the lethal radius of effects.
• Which term describes a target that is known to exist and on which actions are planned?
• Which forward observer control option would you use to allow a FO to call for fire using available assets without requiring centralized approval?
• Which option lists the four adjustment techniques for area adjustment fires?
• During a registration, a round that is a round target or range correct provides what type of spotting?
• Maximum range of M777 w/M232?
• What command relationship means to place units or personnel in an organization where such placement is relatively permanent, and/or where such organization controls and administers the units or personnel for the primary function, or greater portion of the functions, of the unit or personnel?
• Which fixed-wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-65, HARM, and SDBs? (alternative phrasing)
• Which DPICM variant carries 72 submunitions?
• Which control term represents continuing fire until ordered to stop?
• What is a defensive operation that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force?
• Which task describes slowing the enemy’s momentum and inflicting maximum damage without decisive engagement?
• Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the team?
• What command relationship means to be assigned to and forming an essential part of a military organization as listed in its table of organization for the Army, Air Force, and Marine Corps, and are assigned to the operating forces for the Navy?
• Which term describes counterfire that responds to enemy indirect fire threats after detecting them and aims to quickly neutralize the threat?
• Which adjustment technique ensures FFE rounds will be within 50 meters of the target?
• What command relationship is the authority over forces that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned?
• The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _____ with shorter hash marks at _____ increments.
• NSFS brevity term for nonscheduled fire mission report?
• Which item is not one of the four Fire Support functions?
• Which unit-level officer is typically responsible for coordination of fire support within a company-level operation?
• Which angle is defined by the intersection of the observer-target and gun-target lines with the vertex at the target?
• Using the M929 WP round, what is the maximum range of the M120/M120A1 120mm mortar?
• Which control type allows multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to restrictions?
• Which support relationship is a relationship assigned to a unit to support the force as a whole and to reinforce another similar-type unit?
• Which support relationship is a relationship requiring a force to support another supporting unit?
• What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?
• Army Attack Aviation can perform CAS in support of another component.
• Which forward observer control option would you use for maximum control that requires the FO to contact the FIST for each call for fire?
• True / False: A spotting of 'LINE' is a round that impacts on the line with the adjusting point as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).
• Fire support planning is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans using which set of elements?
• Which statement about the M449 APICM submunition count is correct?
• Which HOB spotting describes a round that grazed the target area?
• Which statement about the M449 APICM is true?
• What is the automatic HOB correction for the time portion of the precision registration if the first round is spotted as a graze burst?
• Fill in the circular error range that corresponds to CAT IV.
• Which of the following lists all HOB spottings?
• In the TEFACHR acronym, what does the letter A stand for?
• What term refers to the area allocated to artillery units that allows individual artillery systems to maneuver to increase survivability?
• What FDC command is used to signify the number of rounds specified in the fire for effect has been fired?
• In FIST vehicle employment, the Independent Observer option is characterized by which of the following outcomes?
• When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, what does the observer base the determination for the method of fire on?
• NSFS brevity term that summarizes NGFS capability when unknown to an NGFS station?
• Which type of operation focuses on protecting a force or facility?
• In radar operations, which zone is designated to protect friendly weapons by preventing acquisitions from being reported?
• What asset provides the commander flexibility, range, speed, lethality, and the ability to mass fires at a desired time and place?
• Which branch of service employs its attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform?
• Which type of smoke is a smoke curtain deployed between threat observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces?
• What command relationship is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission?
• What term describes the specific targeting of enemy indirect fire systems including their command and control, sensors, platforms, and logistics before they engage friendly forces?
• What term describes the prompt action taken to neutralize or destroy enemy forces or capabilities?
• Which illumination pattern name explicitly suggests a spread across a range?
• Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be?
• Which radar zone is purposely created to block radar reporting of acquisitions near friendly assets?
• Using the following information, what should the observer send to the FDC as their deviation refinement for a registration? OT Factor of 2; Spottings of +7R, +15R, -5L, and +3R.
• Azimuth reference types for north include which combination?
• Which option correctly states the Field Artillery's three-action objective in fire support?
• What brevity term means sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
• Which offensive operation typically follows a successful attack and aims to disrupt the enemy in depth?
• Which radar zone is a weapons locating radar search area in enemy territory that the commander monitors closely to detect and report any weapon ahead of all acquisitions other than those from critical friendly zones or call for fire zones?
• Which fire support coordination measure is established by the land or amphibious force commander to support common objectives within an area of operation, beyond which all fires must be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement, and short of the line, all fires must be coordinated with the establishing commander prior to engagement?
• What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?
• How many submunitions are in the M864 DPICM?
• You're an observer on the hill and you identify an enemy approximately 500 meters from your position. You announce DANGER CLOSE in your method of engagement. While adjusting your rounds, which adjustment technique is best suited for your situation?
• True / False: When conducting an immediate mission the CFF is sent in three transmissions.
• Which fixed-wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-65, HARM, and SDBs?
• What fuze can be added to 155mm artillery M795 HE and M549A1 HERA rounds to increase precision?
• Which munition category reduces collateral damage by delivering precise effects at a designated point?
• As an observer, you are solely responsible for which of the five requirements?
• In the CAS execution template, what is the 7th step?
• In NSFS communications, which brevity term is used to report how much ammunition remains?
• True/False: Hand measurements of angular deviation are the same for all observers.
• What are the four Fire Support functions?
• Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of L-Location.
• What can JTACs and FAC(A)s use to develop and correlate targeting data, mark targets, and provide terminal guidance operations?
• What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that the LZ, HLZ, or DZ has enemy activity below the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• What can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions?
• Which statement best describes the nature of deliberate targeting?
• Permissive fire support coordination measures ______ the attack of targets, requiring clearance with terrain owners and other airspace users.
• True / False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions.
• Which of the following is a valid method of target location?
• What is NOT a method for responsive fires?
• In a polar plot mission, which term describes the vertical displacement of the target relative to the observer?
• If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give _____.
• If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for fire?
• HOB corrections are sent in multiples of which unit?
• Which of the following is NOT a method of target location?
• What is the maximum range of the M982 Excalibur projectile?
• During a quick smoke CFF using shell smoke (HC) you use HE in adjustment until which bracket is split?
• A _____ is a line that delineates surface areas for coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units, formations, or areas (JP 3-0). _____(ies)(s) divide up areas of operation and define responsibility for clearance of fires. _____(ies)(s) are both permissive and restrictive in nature.
• Who is the fire support representative for the maneuver platoon?
• The minimum deviation correction for smoke is 20 meters. Which option matches this value?
• What term describes the zone around friendly equipment where radar acquisitions are prohibited?
• The method of engagement consists of:
• True / False: The two types of adjustment that may be employed are area and precision.
• Which brevity term would you use to begin using briefed comm procedures to counter electronic jamming?
• In deviation refinement, after calculating average deviation, to what unit is the correction expressed?
• In NSFS brevity, which term represents a newly reported target?
• Which of the five requirements relates to meteorological information?
• What are the 14 methods of control from ATP 3-09.30?
• Which is the first element in the six elements of the call for fire?
• Which of the following is NOT a reason for MARK to be included in the method of engagement?
• During an impact registration the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the nearest one mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before _____.
• What is the minimum deviation or range correction made while adjusting illumination?
• Which of the following is the second line of the 9-Line CAS Brief?
• What are the danger close distances for artillery and mortars / 5-inch naval guns and TLAM?
• What direction will observers convert their direction to for the CFF requests unless otherwise stated?
• Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position but is normally within which range?
• Which zone is set up to prevent friendly radars from acquiring information on friendly assets?
• Which munition is available to use with the 120mm mortar to minimize collateral damage and reduce the number of rounds required to achieve the target effects?
• Splash call for AA1025... you hear it but you're unable to visually acquire the impact, but you can't tell if it's over or short. What spotting would you make?
• A _____ is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.
• Which radar zone is a weapons locating radar search area in enemy territory that the commander monitors to detect and report any weapon ahead of all acquisitions other than those from critical friendly zones or call for fire zones?
• Which vehicle employment option maximizes assets available to the battalion or brigade commander but might degrade the supported unit?
• During the time portion, if three airbursts and one graze burst are observed, what is the HOB correction?
• What is the minimum the grid locations will be expressed to for Excalibur calls for fire?
• Which weapon systems is the AH-64 Apache equipped with?
• During the time portion of the precision registration, once the observer achieves a measurable airburst, what is the command given?
• Which requirement pertains to the location of the firing unit?
• What is the maximum range of the M224/M224A1 60mm mortar?
• What does JFO stand for in the context of joint fires operations?
• Which item is included as part of the target description?
• If an OF fan has arms spaced 100 mils apart and covers 2000 mils, how many radial arms are present?
• Which forward observer control option would you use to assign a particular fire support asset to an FO from which they may request fire support?
• What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) requires control of individual attacks but is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release or is unable to visually acquire the target?
• The NSFS term GURF is used to indicate what scenario?
• What should be used as the primary means to determine the targets' location?
• Which option lists exactly the four adjustment techniques for area adjustment fires?
• What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in relation to the registration point?
• Which term describes a group of two or more targets engaged simultaneously?
• Which of the following lists the four types of smoke?
• What integrates the fires warfighting function into operations?
• What term refers to an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement?
• When converting degrees to mils you must multiply the number of degrees by what to determine mils?
• Which control term would an observer use to request a splash indicating impact?
• The objective of an impact registration is to get spottings of _____ along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25 meters apart.
• What is the rate of descent for M485A2 illumination rounds?
• True / False: Once a target number is assigned, the observer should begin each correction with the observer identification, followed by the target number, and ending with the desired correction.
• What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor)?
• Which operation involves moving forward or backward through another force's combat positions to reach or leave contact with the enemy?
• Which tactical task is defined as physically rendering an enemy force combat-ineffective until reconstitution occurs?
• Which term describes a brief bombardment before an assault that shapes the battlefield by striking targets across a wide area?
• Which DA form is used for the Target List Worksheet?
• How wide in meters should a quick smoke mission be to obscure areas?
• When adjusting illumination rounds, what are HOB corrections sent in multiples of?
• During the time portion, if two airbursts and two graze bursts are observed, the HOB correction is Up by how much?
• Which zone is used to ensure that radar does not report acquisitions near friendly weapon systems?
• What is the minimum range correction for smoke?
• Which element is described as the brain of the indirect fire system?
• What is the name of the zone around friendly systems used to suppress radar acquisition reporting?
• Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission, how are the corrections sent?
• What brevity term means acquisition of laser designation, or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST) capable?
• _____ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets in the circumstances ruling at the time.
• Failure to select proper shell fuze combinations may result in what?
• Which pairing correctly describes roles in the indirect fire system?
• Which FIST employment option places the FIST at the company or troop level?
• Vertical shift is transmitted to the target location only if the difference in vertical shift meets or exceeds how many meters, and vertical shift is expressed to the nearest how many meters?
• _____ is a brief, intense bombardment on selected targets or a prolonged effort over time covering a large number of targets.
• In the context of field artillery terminology, what does FPF stand for?
• What additional information is sent along with the warning order in the first transmission of the NSFS call for fire?
• The rate of descent used in the 155mm M485A2 illumination rounds example?
• What is NOT part of the T-targeting in SLOCTOP?
• All 105mm illumination rounds have an initial height of burst of 750 meters.
• Which term describes the criterion that focuses on the accomplishment of tasks rather than broader effects?
• Pepper is the NSFS brevity term for which type of fire mission?
• How many transmissions are transmitted to the ship for the NSFS call for fire?
• What is the ninth line of the 9-Line CAS Brief?
• What task/effect is to render a force incapable of achieving its objectives?
• Which title is the senior field artillery commander for the theater, corps, division, or brigade combat team who advises the maneuver commander to plan, coordinate, and integrate fire support?
• What is a type of offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both?
• Which forward observer control option centralizes call-for-fire authority, requiring the FO to contact the FIST for each call?
• As an FO calling for fire you observe a round impact beyond the adjusting point. What range spotting would that be?
• Which unit provides terminal attack control of CAS aircraft and is under the ASOC in air-ground operations?
• What is the minimum deviation correction for smoke?
• The _____ has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver and provides the commander's intent for an operation and issues guidance, including guidance for fire support. The _____ translates the guidance into fire support tasks.
• How many submunitions are in the M4831A1 DPICM?
• In HC smoke CFF, the bracket split occurs at which distance?
• In deviation refinement, what operation is used to compute the average deviation?
• The _____ is an air liaison unit co-located with ground maneuver units. _____s are under the operational control of the ASOC and have two primary missions: to advise ground commanders on the capabilities and limitations of air operations (the responsibility of the air liaison officer [ALO]) and provide terminal attack control of CAS aircraft (the responsibility of the JTACs).
• If angle T is 500 mils or greater and the observer is getting more of a correction than asked for, what should the observer do?
• What term provides immediate indirect and joint fires to neutralize, destroy, and suppress enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired?
• Personnel authorized to perform JFO duties must be:
• Which fire support coordination measure is a line beyond which conventional fires may fire at any time within the establishing HQ boundaries without additional coordination, but airspace coordination is still required?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six elements of the call for fire?
• Before a control correction during an immediate suppression or when attacking a new target without sending a new call for fire, what correction must be sent?
• Which term refers to a support relationship that reinforces another unit of similar type while supporting the force as a whole?
• Which brevity term denotes sighting a FRIENDLY position or aircraft?
• An observer must be able to self-locate to within _____ meters or _____ meters if degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.
• When executing CAS without a JTAC or FAC(A) qualified individual, what must you advise the aircrew?
• What type of mission is normally fired on planned targets, and a length of time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire?
• A quick smoke mission width of 150 to 600 meters is correct. Which option shows this width?
• What is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft?
• Under degraded navigation conditions, the self-location accuracy should be within 100 meters.
• Which four actions comprise the Fire Support functions that align with the operation concept and preserve the Fire Support system?
• True or False: Army Attack Aviation and SOF gunship use the same call for fire format.
• Which of the following statements is also acceptable to advise the aircrew when CAS is conducted without a JTAC?
• Which of the following is a recognized method of target location?
• Which of the following is NOT a part of combat identification?
• Which term describes a measure that facilitates movement through an obstacle by coordinating airspace for permissive fire?
• True or False: Clearance to fire is the transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire unless "at my command" or "danger close" has been stated.
• Which line is Mark Type and Terminal Guidance in the 9-Line CAS Brief?
• In the event an Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to _____.
• What is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation?
• When using the flash to bang method of distance determination, how many meters per second do you multiply by the number of seconds between the time the round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang)?
• What FDC command does the FO receive after sending a CFF as 'DNL' or after establishing a priority target?
• Which term describes a target on which the delivery of fires takes precedence due to time or importance?
• Which vehicle employment option positions the fire support vehicle on terrain to maximize use of the laser designator and rangefinder while the FSO rides in the commander's vehicle?
• What is the fifth correction in the sequence of 15 subsequent corrections?
• Which forward observer control option would you use to assign a particular fire support asset to an FO for all calls for fire?
• What is the additional step that is not required for artillery but may be required for mortars during a registration?
• A _____ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.
• An OF fan has how many radial arms that are 100 mils apart and cover 1,600 mils?
• Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by _____ in space and time on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities.
• Which term describes the criterion used to assess whether the end state or objective has been achieved by the operation?
• Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE once the bracket of what size is split?
• Which aircraft is the AC-130J?
• Which offensive operation targets a hostile force attempting to escape, with the goal of destroying it?
• What is the name of the radar zone that is normally positioned around friendly weapons to stop acquisitions from being intercepted by friendly sensors?
• Which brevity term means FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch?
• What is the initial height of burst in meters for the M485A2 illumination round?
• How should an observer maintain positive control of the SOF Gunship during an engagement?
• The minimum range correction for smoke is 100 meters. Which option matches this value?
• The M982 Excalibur is best described as which of the following?
• True or False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire, aircrews are not required to identify the location of the friendly element and the target prior to conducting an engagement.
• NSFS brevity term for an ammunition remaining report?
• A _____ is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual artillery systems can maneuver to increase their survivability.
• Which option correctly lists a component of the engagement method according to the material?
• Attitude is sent to the nearest how many mils?
• What is the initial height of burst for all 120mm illumination rounds?
• Which FIST employment option consolidates the FIST at the battalion level?
• Which type of smoke placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and minimize their vision?